Quantcast
Channel: Why is the uncertainty principle not $\sigma_A^2 \sigma_B^2\geq(\langle A B\rangle +\langle B A\rangle -2 \langle A\rangle\langle B\rangle)^2/4$? - Physics Stack Exchange
Browsing latest articles
Browse All 3 View Live

Answer by rob for Why is the uncertainty principle not $\sigma_A^2...

Griffiths' formulation makes it explicit that operators which commute are not restricted by the uncertainty principle. Your boxed expression obscures this physical and mathematical insight.

View Article



Answer by Mostafa for Why is the uncertainty principle not $\sigma_A^2...

The most correct relation is the following general relation, that actually contains both terms.If you omit the inequality $(|z|^2\geq(Im(z))^2)$ from the derivation, the next steps toward the...

View Article

Why is the uncertainty principle not $\sigma_A^2 \sigma_B^2\geq(\langle A...

In Griffiths' QM, he uses two inequalities (here numbered as $(1)$ and $(2)$) to prove the following general uncertainty principle:$$\sigma_A^2 \sigma_B^2\geq\left(\frac{1}{2i}\langle [\hat A ,\hat...

View Article
Browsing latest articles
Browse All 3 View Live




Latest Images